RicksView

politics, hypocrisy and meanness in public affairs, alligators, anti-empire-ism, occasional personal stuff

Monday, December 13, 2010

Help me understand -

If the government of Pakistan states that it has limited or no authority in some areas/provinces/territories, why are those considered part of Pakistan? Yes, the British drew a lot of lines - 1820-1967 - but why does not the Pakistani government say, for example, "The so-called Tribal Areas and The Northwest Autonomous Provinces are not part of our country. We can't control events there. We get nothing from there. They run their own show. They see us as foreigners. We won't send our soldiers in there to die, anymore"?

1 Comments:

  • At 2:52 PM, Blogger Piglet's Buddy said…

    Obviously, our governments do things according to reasons that we aren't capable of comprehending, so what gives us the right to criticize? Accurate? Yes. Insane? Most definitely.

     

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